I meant more the assertion that gender differences are largest in Scandinavian countries and that this gender difference is specifically caused by genetic differences between the sexes. What asshole did he pull that information out of?
Have you ever tried to find out? Or are you asking me to find out for you?
The first google i get is this paper
Countries with Higher Levels of Gender Equality Show Larger National Sex Differences in Mathematics Anxiety and Relatively Lower Parental Mathematics Valuation for Girls
http://journals.plos.org/plosone/article?id=10.1371/journal.pone.0153857
The next google result stated this documentary https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=p5LRdW8xw70
My main interest was in the protests about him and how they were conducted, what he was saying was pretty immaterial at the time.
A quote from the linked study:
Further, we found that boys reported higher perceived parental valuation of mathematics than did girls, and parents actually rated mathematical development as more important for sons than for daughters. The differential valuation of mathematics between the sexes was larger in more developed countries. Paradoxically, economic and social development was associated with a widening gap between parents’ beliefs about the importance of mathematics for sons versus daughters. We found that in this respect the Nordic countries differ from most other countries: These countries score highest in gender equality and have no (Iceland) or a small (Norway, Sweden, Finland) difference between parental valuation of sons’ and daughters’ mathematical development. Further study of the unique socio-cultural factors affecting sex differences in these specific countries will be of importance for better understanding the relation between gender equality and gender differences in educational attitudes.
I don't see how this harmonizes with the conclusion. Would you also e.g. say that girls just intrinsically find pink to be a more desirable color? But pink only became associated with femininity last century. It's dangerous to make sweeping conclusions about some "intrinsic" variability when we are ALWAYS associated with a specific culture.
Regarding
https://www.bradley.edu/dotAsset/165918.pdf , when looking at table 1, one of the things that can be seen is that some very well developed countries Far Eastern countries have a very low GSDI. Maybe Western culture is somehow correlated with sex differences? Even if there was a clean trend, it'd still be a premature condition since you'd have to show that these differences are specifically caused by sex and not by socio-cultural tendencies associated with higher human development, i.e. you need to show that this proposition
It is proposed that heightened levels of sexual
dimorphism result from personality traits of men and women being less constrained and more able to
naturally diverge in developed nations.
is true, or seems to be true, which it doesn't seem to be IMO given that we are bombarded with culture and ideals all the time.
Just to be clear, I'm not trying to say that there are no differences between the sexes. What I'm taking issue with are broad politically motivated statements.